Content Preview

ABFAS Rearfoot Exam 2025 Questions and Answers A 25 year old ballet dancer presents with an 8 month history of ankle pain following an ankle sprain. On physical exam there is joint swelling and radio graphs are unremarkable physical therapy and NSAIDs have not reduced her symptoms. What is the next appropriate step in management of this patient? - ....ANSWER ...-MRI For a one-year-old patient with calcaneal valgus, what is an acceptable treatment plan? ....ANSWER ...-Manipulation and serial casting A 25-year-old female sustained an inversion ankle sprain 24 hours ago. The area is severely edematous and ecchymosis. Diagnostic tests reveal rupture of the lateral collateral ligaments. What should the treatment consist of at this time? ....ANSWER ...-Compression dressing 24 - 48 hours Which lateral ankle ligaments are intracapsular/extracapsular? - ....ANSWER ...- ATFL - Intracapsular CFL - Extracapsular PTFL - Strongest, deepest, usually doesn't rupture A 30-year-old male complains of a painful right ankle after sustaining a forced plantarflexion injury. Plantarflexion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the hallux greatly …FOR STUDENTS ONLY…©️2025 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED… 1